History /
Terrible past for the Jews in Poland? [930]
Could it be from later on that the documentary is referencing? Could you both be right, but not talking about the same time periods?
Yes billpawl, the privilege that the Jewish elders of Bransk had in denying Gentiles the right to live in the town center of Bransk does date from the time after the partitions, but since Harry is wrong to claim that this privilege never existed then he cannot be right. Harry uses the false dichotomy fallacy in the following statement:
So we are left with four possibilities
Yes, we have established that; however there are four theoretically possible explanations for that statement (as outlined above).
Who is this "we" you are speaking of Harry? None but yourself is pretending that your four possibilities are exhaustive. Why are you using the plural "we" to put forth this fallacy? Perhaps you are using the "royal we", H.N.R.I..........hhaha!
By the way, the "Hahahaha!" adds nothing to this discussion and suggests a very disrespectful attitude.
You find laughter suggestive of disrespect. Others, without a huge chip on their shoulder, may see it as an expression of amusement, and it certainly is amusing to watch the purveyor of logical fallacies put in his place.
So to say that Jews had priviliges or advantages over other Poles is an anachronism.
Yehudi doesn't understand what "anachronism" means. Just because people were born into their respective social groups in medieval times in no way makes the privileges enjoyed by one group over another somehow "unreal" by modern standards.