nincompoop_not
6 Jun 2010
Genealogy / Is your line of the Polish family noble? [74]
There's nothing more frustrating than reading on PF 'there was no Poland'. There was Poland. There were Polish people. Yes, the country was split, yes, the country was governed by others but to hear on here lame explanation 'there was no Poland'?! Which woodwork have you come out of?!
As for generous bunch of replies
Im withdrawing the Polish Jew statement.
Most of them were Russian/German/Galician Jews because Poland actually didn't exist.
No idea why so many 'Polish' Americans think they've got Polish roots or belong to Polish nobility.
no? ah, yes, they come from Polish nobility; or are German Russians and anything else but Polish.
I put it in the context of Jewish community but of course the same goes for Poles, Russians, Irish, Germans - whoever was leaving Europe after Napoleonic wars,
Poles had other reasons to emigrate before anyway (partitions) - that's why States got Kosciuszko and Pulaski; most of Polish 'intellectuals' -writers, scientists etc, and nobility emigrated mostly to France and Germany after 1848.
I seriously recommend reading Polish history books. I repeat again, most of the Jews, since mid 18th century had to be named. Surname adoption happened in all parts of partitioned Poland.
Yes, they wouldn't, obviously. But then if you have Vetala or whoever making a claim that her Jewish family is noble - I don't dispute it. I don't think that anyone was checking every generation if they stayed Christian or not, or if they married into Christian families or not.
Another thing, have a look at the Warsaw digital library, looks for books dating back to 19th century. According to them surnames reflecting weekdays, months etc (so Poniedzialkowski, Czerwinski, Lipinski, Sierpinski etc) are new names which were given do Jewish converts back in the 16th century.
plk123 As it happens all over the world, some of the Jewish emigration might have not admitted they were Jews. They were persecuted one way or another in Europe over the years, and for the same reason they might have assumed/converted to RC after arriving wherever they were arriving.
The rest is not worth replying.
For those who assume they are noble because of surnames, quick check here:
wbc.poznan.pl/dlibra/doccontent?id=71636&dirids=1 (it's a list of Polish noblemen as of 1887)and another one, the same year, genealogy of Polish aristocracy
wbc.poznan.pl/dlibra/doccontent?id=70288&dirids=1
and as for plk123 and z_darius - you are welcome to use this library to read about Jewish population in Poland and in other countries but Poland between 1772 and 1918
There's nothing more frustrating than reading on PF 'there was no Poland'. There was Poland. There were Polish people. Yes, the country was split, yes, the country was governed by others but to hear on here lame explanation 'there was no Poland'?! Which woodwork have you come out of?!
As for generous bunch of replies
The reminder of emigration from the territories of Poland, Germany and Russia were predominantly Germans, Ukrainians, Poles, Jews and Russians
Im withdrawing the Polish Jew statement.
Most of them were Russian/German/Galician Jews because Poland actually didn't exist.
No idea why so many 'Polish' Americans think they've got Polish roots or belong to Polish nobility.
oh, i wouldn't assume that, for sure.. many poles in the states have no jewish roots at all.
no? ah, yes, they come from Polish nobility; or are German Russians and anything else but Polish.
'they were poor'
I put it in the context of Jewish community but of course the same goes for Poles, Russians, Irish, Germans - whoever was leaving Europe after Napoleonic wars,
Poles had other reasons to emigrate before anyway (partitions) - that's why States got Kosciuszko and Pulaski; most of Polish 'intellectuals' -writers, scientists etc, and nobility emigrated mostly to France and Germany after 1848.
maybe, maybe not.. that is not a hard fast rule at all..
I seriously recommend reading Polish history books. I repeat again, most of the Jews, since mid 18th century had to be named. Surname adoption happened in all parts of partitioned Poland.
wouldn't they cease to be jews then? it doesn't make any sense otherwise..
Yes, they wouldn't, obviously. But then if you have Vetala or whoever making a claim that her Jewish family is noble - I don't dispute it. I don't think that anyone was checking every generation if they stayed Christian or not, or if they married into Christian families or not.
Another thing, have a look at the Warsaw digital library, looks for books dating back to 19th century. According to them surnames reflecting weekdays, months etc (so Poniedzialkowski, Czerwinski, Lipinski, Sierpinski etc) are new names which were given do Jewish converts back in the 16th century.
plk123 As it happens all over the world, some of the Jewish emigration might have not admitted they were Jews. They were persecuted one way or another in Europe over the years, and for the same reason they might have assumed/converted to RC after arriving wherever they were arriving.
The rest is not worth replying.
For those who assume they are noble because of surnames, quick check here:
wbc.poznan.pl/dlibra/doccontent?id=71636&dirids=1 (it's a list of Polish noblemen as of 1887)and another one, the same year, genealogy of Polish aristocracy
wbc.poznan.pl/dlibra/doccontent?id=70288&dirids=1
and as for plk123 and z_darius - you are welcome to use this library to read about Jewish population in Poland and in other countries but Poland between 1772 and 1918