ShortHairThug
25 Apr 2010
Language / Polish was chosen the HARDEST LANGUAGE in the world to learn... :D [1558]
I’m not disputing the fact that the entomology could have evolved in the manner you have describe, what I’m saying is that if indeed that’s the case the original meaning is not what it is today and no one will ever make this assumption. However there are still some anomalies to be explained to put this theory of yours on a solid footing. Surely if the term “na” originaly referred to the neighboring lands only, one would have to make the assumption that it would equally apply to the lands east of us as well as in the west and there lies the dilemma. When we speak of the German lands we say “w” ie. (w Saksonii, w Brandenburgii, w Turingii, w Bawarii etc.) Those are all lands describing historical regions and as such same principal should govern all, be it eastern lands or western lands. It’s an interesting theory which btw I’m not buying at all, I’m afraid an explanation is much more simple than that, we simply use the term that comes more naturally to us hence so many discrepancies.
Edit: Even if you make the distinction that the lands west of us are Germanic and the other are Slavic, how do you explain Hungary and Baltic lands?
Start to make sense, ShortHairThug?
I’m not disputing the fact that the entomology could have evolved in the manner you have describe, what I’m saying is that if indeed that’s the case the original meaning is not what it is today and no one will ever make this assumption. However there are still some anomalies to be explained to put this theory of yours on a solid footing. Surely if the term “na” originaly referred to the neighboring lands only, one would have to make the assumption that it would equally apply to the lands east of us as well as in the west and there lies the dilemma. When we speak of the German lands we say “w” ie. (w Saksonii, w Brandenburgii, w Turingii, w Bawarii etc.) Those are all lands describing historical regions and as such same principal should govern all, be it eastern lands or western lands. It’s an interesting theory which btw I’m not buying at all, I’m afraid an explanation is much more simple than that, we simply use the term that comes more naturally to us hence so many discrepancies.
Edit: Even if you make the distinction that the lands west of us are Germanic and the other are Slavic, how do you explain Hungary and Baltic lands?