Ironside
8 Feb 2018
News / Israel opposing potential new Polish law to criminalise term 'Polish death camps' [1539]
For number of reasons:
- no Polish state.
- sectarian upbringing
Because there was so much fewer of them.
Right, the Problem is that a part of Poland had been 19the century Germany.
Anyway it has much to do with industrialization and a fact that Jews were less numerous. In 19th century Warsaw you could find Jews from all social strata, from criminals, bum, pimps, ******, to workers, doctors, lawyers, bankers and industrialists . Thing is there were like few cities with opportunities, most were living in small villages, townies and such.
So why do you think that was?
For number of reasons:
- no Polish state.
- sectarian upbringing
that Jews in Western Europe were so different to Polish Jews?
Because there was so much fewer of them.
were emancipated and enjoyed almost full equal rights
Right, the Problem is that a part of Poland had been 19the century Germany.
Anyway it has much to do with industrialization and a fact that Jews were less numerous. In 19th century Warsaw you could find Jews from all social strata, from criminals, bum, pimps, ******, to workers, doctors, lawyers, bankers and industrialists . Thing is there were like few cities with opportunities, most were living in small villages, townies and such.