Natasa
13 Sep 2010
Genealogy / Polish DNA? Poles have the most genes in a group includes Balts, Macedonians and Greeks. [263]
Paulina, they are really angry about this way of reasoning.
Typical question, has to do with this topic:
"Post from Bojan to 07.11.2008
Dominant haplogroup among Slavic populations is R1a. Second most important haplogroup present among all Slavic countries is I2A (former I1b).
Interesting is that R1a (see fig. 5) has maximal frequency in north in Poland, while its variation is maximal in south in Balkans.
Significantly higher variation does pinpoint to groups that are origin of groups with lower variation.
If R1a has arrived on Balkan with Slavs, then genetically, according to variations given in this study, those Balkan Slavs must have been the parental group of all other Slavs.
Another logical explanation would be that R2a did in fact spread from Balkan to north-east all the way to Scandinavia. (Czech and Slovak and Poland seems to have lower variations then Ukraina, Russia, or Denmark and Skandinavia). The higher variation zone is in fact in correlation with position of Venedae tribe on maps of Europe euratlas.com/history_europe/europe_map_0300.htm
I2A variation indicates dwelling for a long time in Panonia, Czechia, Slovakia and south Poland before going southwards to Balkan.
Slavic is thus mixture of two primal tribes: R1a going at some point in time northwards from Balkan and I2A going southwards from
Panonian plane, Czech/Slovak and South Poland.
Riddle is when those migrations took place...
They could took tens thousands of years, or they could have been done in much much less time....
Were carriers of I2A to Balkan pre-Illyric tribes, Illyrians, or Serb/Croat tribes?
Answer is in genetics of Balkan archeological sites.... or in genetic study of present populations on much finer level then one of haplogroups..."
"Post from iGENEA to 07.11.2008
Again, again and again: A connection between haplogroups and primitive tribes doesn't exist!!!! So please, stop to distribue here wrong informations, these would only disturb other forums and conduct to missunderstanding.
I already explained you the reason because haplogroups don't depend from the primitive tribe. Of course you will find a lot of such connections (R1b1c1c is only for Vikings f.ex.), but they don't come from scientists. All these connection are not correct and you must be careful, when you diffuse informations, which are just speculations and not reliable informations.
You told me, you already know, that primitive tribes don't depend from haplogroups, but as I see here, you didn't tell me the true. Your theories about slavs are a mixture from R1a and I2a will be correct in the majority of cases, but the causal connection is totally wrong. Because a slav has haplogroup R1a and another slav haplogroup I2a, you cannot say: Slavs are a mixture of these haplogroup is a WRONG CONCLUSION AND NOT SCIENTIFICAL.
Paulina, they are really angry about this way of reasoning.
Typical question, has to do with this topic:
"Post from Bojan to 07.11.2008
Dominant haplogroup among Slavic populations is R1a. Second most important haplogroup present among all Slavic countries is I2A (former I1b).
Interesting is that R1a (see fig. 5) has maximal frequency in north in Poland, while its variation is maximal in south in Balkans.
Significantly higher variation does pinpoint to groups that are origin of groups with lower variation.
If R1a has arrived on Balkan with Slavs, then genetically, according to variations given in this study, those Balkan Slavs must have been the parental group of all other Slavs.
Another logical explanation would be that R2a did in fact spread from Balkan to north-east all the way to Scandinavia. (Czech and Slovak and Poland seems to have lower variations then Ukraina, Russia, or Denmark and Skandinavia). The higher variation zone is in fact in correlation with position of Venedae tribe on maps of Europe euratlas.com/history_europe/europe_map_0300.htm
I2A variation indicates dwelling for a long time in Panonia, Czechia, Slovakia and south Poland before going southwards to Balkan.
Slavic is thus mixture of two primal tribes: R1a going at some point in time northwards from Balkan and I2A going southwards from
Panonian plane, Czech/Slovak and South Poland.
Riddle is when those migrations took place...
They could took tens thousands of years, or they could have been done in much much less time....
Were carriers of I2A to Balkan pre-Illyric tribes, Illyrians, or Serb/Croat tribes?
Answer is in genetics of Balkan archeological sites.... or in genetic study of present populations on much finer level then one of haplogroups..."
"Post from iGENEA to 07.11.2008
Again, again and again: A connection between haplogroups and primitive tribes doesn't exist!!!! So please, stop to distribue here wrong informations, these would only disturb other forums and conduct to missunderstanding.
I already explained you the reason because haplogroups don't depend from the primitive tribe. Of course you will find a lot of such connections (R1b1c1c is only for Vikings f.ex.), but they don't come from scientists. All these connection are not correct and you must be careful, when you diffuse informations, which are just speculations and not reliable informations.
You told me, you already know, that primitive tribes don't depend from haplogroups, but as I see here, you didn't tell me the true. Your theories about slavs are a mixture from R1a and I2a will be correct in the majority of cases, but the causal connection is totally wrong. Because a slav has haplogroup R1a and another slav haplogroup I2a, you cannot say: Slavs are a mixture of these haplogroup is a WRONG CONCLUSION AND NOT SCIENTIFICAL.
