History /
Were Nobles during Commonwealth constituting the Nation of Poland? [37]
What made them better, was it that they accumulated wealth and then weaved a story about their origins being somehow more divine, or in this case, a separate race?
Accumulating wealth wasn't the only way to be admitted into the slachta as it is said that common soldiers were sometimes enobled for bravery upon the battlefield. As for the story regarding their Sarmatian origins the szlachta didn't weave the story entirely themselves, rather a book, written by Tacitus at around 100 AD, was discovered in Herschfeld abbey and sent to Italy in 1455, this book became known as
The Germania. The tome placed the Sarmatians to the East of the Germans in the place Poland now occupied and so the Szlachta inferred that the Sarmatians must be their ancestors. There may actually be some truth to this genealogical claim because there are words in Polish that linguists claim are of Iranian, rather than Slavic origin, such as the name of the pagan diety
Swarog as well as the monotheistic
Bogu. People in other places in Europe almost certainly have Sarmatian ancestry. It is said that the names "Serb" and "Croat" both originally designated Sarmatian warbands, and it is a definite fact that many Alans (another name for Sarmatians) settled in France in the area of Orleans. The most direct descendants of the Sarmatians alive today in Europe are the Ossets who still speak a Persian tongue. As for this thread's titular question the answer is certainly yes. The Commonwealth was a noble republic not a popular one.