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Posts by Sire Brenshar  

Joined: 23 Jan 2010 / Male ♂
Last Post: 2 Oct 2011
Threads: 1
Posts: 61

Speaks Polish?: Decently (very slow reder and can't write)

Displayed posts: 62 / page 3 of 3
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Sire Brenshar   
1 Oct 2011
History / Are Poles grateful to the Russians for winning the war? [120]

Both were intent on ending Polish existence but in different ways,would you like to die from cholera or flu ?dead is dead

So... Can you show me a source that backs up these claims? How many Poles were killed by the Communist occupiers during the communist era? Why was Polish history still taught in schools, why was the Polish language not suppressed, why were there no mass murders of Poles after the Soviets had firm control?

Took on Japan???? They declared war on Japan three days before the surrender AFTER the US dropped atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki.
"they took on Japan and slaughtered them " might be a bit of an overstatement.

Read about the invasion of Manchuria. Don't simply assume things, it'll just make you look stupid.

Also, please get your facts straight. They're absurdly wrong.
Sire Brenshar   
2 Oct 2011
History / Are Poles grateful to the Russians for winning the war? [120]

on the INTERNET forum, not likely.

I can only wonder why you put the emphasis on "internet"...

Either way, Socrates must back up his claims, otherwise what he says are just his utterly subjective opinion. And as such, useless to the debate.

Define the communist era.

The years around those leading up to the fifties (end of majority of Polish resistance), to 1989.

Are you sure it was Polish history that had been taught ?

Not solely, but yes. Polish history was taught.

Why you asking irrelevant question, Poles were murdered by the ten of thousands after the WWII by the Soviets.

Rather than tell me I'm saying irrelevant questions, which were not even addressed to you, answer them.

I repeat. Were there any mass murders of Poles after the Soviets had assumed control?

You notice my carefully worded sentence? No, its not because I'm trying to narrow the subject into a period of time that backs my point, but rather to show Socrates wrong: If the Soviets wanted to exterminate the Poles, why did they become so lethargic and lax about it when they had full control? Why is it that once they built their own nuclear weapons, meaning when the West no longer had any advantage over them, did they no longer feel the need to end, freely, polish existence?