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What is meant by 'dochody' (monthly earnings per child) in Poland - are they GROSS or NET?


terri 1 | 1,574    
9 Feb 2016  #1
I have often wondered what is meant by 'dochody' (monthly earnings) when it comes to any calculations. Could someone please help me with this.
Are the figures being quoted GROSS or NET?.
For example the recent 500+ child scheme requires that for the first child the 'dochody' (monthly earnings) per person do not go above a certain limit. How is that counted? If a family consists of 2 parents and 1 child, and the required 'dochody' should not go above 500 per family member, that is 3x500 = 1,500. If the dochody was counted as gross, this figure is below the minimum monthly salary, but if the dochody is counted as net, then how much is the gross figure.
polishinvestor 1 | 362    
9 Feb 2016  #2
They are talking net in regards to first child. Cash in hand so to speak. If earnings are below 800zl per person in a 3 person family, then they will be entitled to join the 500 program. If both parents work and earn the minimum wage they will not be entitled as the minimum net wage I think is 1356 but dont quote me on that.
kpc21 1 | 763    
10 Feb 2016  #3
Przychód (eng. revenue) is gross, dochód (ang. income) is net.
OP terri 1 | 1,574    
10 Feb 2016  #4
Some individuals with one child can reduce their monthly net income by 10 pln in order to receive the benefit. (e.g. reduce 801 pln monthly net by 10 pln in order to get 500 pln). Good thinking Batman.....
delphiandomine 85 | 17,704    
10 Feb 2016  #5
The whole thing is completely flawed. Like the retail tax law, it hasn't been designed well at all, and it's now leading to endless memes showing how wealthy families in Warsaw will get the extra cash, while the single mother earning just over the limit will get nothing.
InPolska 11 | 1,821    
10 Feb 2016  #6
In Poland, it is not difficult not to report one's whole income ;). For instance, a guy is paid let's say 3,000, of which 2,000 will be legal and reported to Tax Authorities and the remaining 1,000 in hand ..... A lot of people work in such situatitons, of course not when working for big international corporations but quite often with small (Polish) private entities. I have heard that it is widely done in post communist countries and that in Russia, it is almost normal ;).

Absolutely, Delph! I personally know several very wealthy families who will benefit from measure because they have 3 kids. You can trust me, that they don't need and don't count on that to raise their kids. Why not giving (more) money to people who really need it?
delphiandomine 85 | 17,704    
10 Feb 2016  #7
Why not giving (more) money to people who really need it?

I don't understand it in the slightest. It's obvious that wealthy families will see it as a way of paying golf fees or for contributing towards private school fees, while those that really need it will do without. Furthermore, the law is so flawed that families that have a 19 year old still in school along with a 15 year old will get nothing.
InPolska 11 | 1,821    
10 Feb 2016  #8
Several of people around me are concerned that it won't help some of the kids as their parents will use said money for drinking .... Well, it can happen in some families. Why not for instance giving money directly to schools? It would then pay for books, meals.... Why not issuing nominative vouchers for special purchases (shoes, clothes, enrolment in sports clubs, discounts in some restaurants/hotels...) to make sure that kids will get their 500 bonus?


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