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Posts by Zebb  

Joined: 31 May 2010 / Male ♂
Last Post: 29 Jun 2010
Threads: 2
Posts: 1
From: sweden
Speaks Polish?: no
Interests: real estate

Displayed posts: 3
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Zebb   
29 Jun 2010
Real Estate / Down-payment; are many contracts made without any down-payments in Poland? [6]

Ever heard of Consumer protection? or Product recall?

I do not think consumer protection laws could work between private persons!

yup, SOP unfortunately.

SOP, for those who don't know = STANDARD OPERATION PROCEDURE

My Good, how could you enter into a contract if one part are free to leave it by his own choice without any consequences! Is it really the fact?

Well, the answer is that my agent told me that this is the common procedure. He also told me that the guy who bought was very trustworthy, he was a notary!!! Everyone told me the same, don't worry you could not have a better customer!

When it came to settlement he pulled out and later I got the information that he bought from some one else in the area!
Zebb   
28 Jun 2010
Real Estate / Down-payment; are many contracts made without any down-payments in Poland? [6]

I had a discussion with a real-estate agent who declared that many contracts are made without any down-payments in Poland and he also had the opinion that a buyer can change his mind and claim money back for almost any reason. In my opinion he should only be able to get his money back for reasons that are mentioned in the contract. Could someone please tell how is the common procedure? This refers to "second hand" sales of apartments.
Zebb   
1 Jun 2010
Real Estate / Contractual issue, a notary agreement to sell an apartment in Poland [2]

Could anyone please comment on this issue:

I had made an agreement to sell an apartment and was at the notary office together with the buyer to finalize the deal.
Following clause was included in the document: "The parties are informed about the Polish civil law no 359 (?) which makes the parties tied to this contract for a period of twelve months."

I tried to convince the notary that this was unreasonable in case the buyer should fail to come forward with the payment as agreed. I mean, if he should not obtain the credit from his bank how could I be staying with the contract for twelve months not beeing able to close a deal with an other client?

I was told that this is the law, my question is of course if it's correct?