As I understand the process, the US calculates the number of people that overstay their visas for each country. If the number of "illegals" over the previous 5 years averages above 10%, then that country's citizens must continue to apply for visas. Each year, the percentage of "illegal" Poles drops - but it seems the aggregate is still above that 10% threshold.
I'm no fan of the US (one reason I moved to Europe), but they have the same rule for each Schengen country...and Poland is apparently the ONLY member country that doesn't abide by this 10% rule. If this information is true, then one must begrudgingly point the finger at Poland for this visa requirement. If my information is wrong, however, I hope someone will enlighten me (as I absolutely don't wish to give my homeland any undeserved credit).
It's like judging someone before he commit the crime.
I feel this way every time I apply for my karta pobytu - I have done everything right and above-board for my entire six-year stay in Poland, yet the folks at residency don't seem overly impressed. For some reason, they seem to believe I'm a welfare case just waiting to happen!