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Polish word "Dom" and its similarities in different languages


NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #1
Ok, I see it means house in Polish. And, there are many claims about the origin of this word, from Latin origin to Slav/Russian origin, etc etc.

I am not here to say its first origin is this language or that language.
But, stones must be put in their places. Prove it is Slav or Latin or another origin. I'll mention its relation to Turkic.

Dom, very close to word Dam is an old Turkic word that is still used today. There is a word for house, Ev, in Turkic, but, it is a certain type of house while "dam" is a generic word for any kind of housing with a cover like tent or with any kind of roofing above your head. Maybe, it comes from the verb "damlamak" which means "to drip" (like rain droplets.) To make a verb from a noun or a noun from a verb is often seen in Turkic. But, usually it is made from the verb. For example, from damlamak (to drip), damla (droplet), dam (generic name of house, ancient name of house in Turkic), etc.

Btw, there is another derived word "Adam" in Turkic which means "Man". And "Man" is similar to Men/Ben in Turkic which means "I". Okay, lets forget these and tell about "dam" in your languages. Here, I told "dom" is originally a Turkic "dam" word.

Ps: On the net everywhere, it says its root is Latin or Roman or Slavic. Prove it is really so. In Polish, how can you derive it?

Ok, I found a close word in Slav.

Domagac = To demand
Domagal = Demanded

However, I don't see any relation of these to the root "dom" in "house" meaning.

Btw, I can translate these words above to Turkic too.

Domagac = Dam+Tree
Domagal = Damagel = Dama+gel = Come to dam/house.
(ok, this part was just for fun.)
isthatu2 4 | 2,708
16 Mar 2011  #2
Dom.....Domicile....Ive no classical education but sounds latin to me.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #3
However, I don't see any relation of these to the root "dom" in "house" meaning.

There isn't. No connection at all. the do in domagańá is a prefix.

Dom.....Domicile....Ive no classical education but sounds latin to me.

And this is right. Before Latin, from IndoEuropean roots. Not Turkic.
ShortHairThug - | 1,103
16 Mar 2011  #4
Okay, lets forget these and tell about "dam" in your languages. Here, I told "dom" is originally a Turkic "dam" word.

But is it? The need for shelter existed since the dawn of mankind itself, I suspect the building of artificial shelter by man was practiced as soon as we started to move from one location to another in search of food so it’s only logical to assume that the word for shelter had to exist long before the development of modern day languages come to be. Similarities of this word in many languages like Latin “domus” or Greek “domos” and as you have mentioned the Turkic “dam” would also point you in the same direction meaning something much more ancient and older than your own. I suspect Turkic “dam” is a derivative of the word from much older civilization like Hindu perhaps? We do know that in ancient Sanskrit the root “dem” means (to build), so if you’re trying to prove that somehow the Polish word “dom” is related to Turkish “dam” than in a sense you might be right as all of them; be it Latin, Greek, Polish or Turkish are derived from much older cultures and language than themselves, therefore the language it originated from is probably long lost in the pages of history that time itself forgot. Good luck with your quest though, perhaps someday you’ll tell us what fascinated discoveries you have uncovered.
andrewwright 8 | 65
16 Mar 2011  #5
Well the word Dom means 2 things in my house,1 Dom means home,2nd Dom is my little Boy Dom or Dom Dom (short for Dominik),Love them both,if that helps :-)
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #6
Saying it Dom is originated from Latin or Roman or Greek or Slav is not enough. What you are doing is not different than written sources that are doing that already and they do not mention Turkic at all. It is not really so important if it is Turkic or not, but, when written sources don't mention Turkic, it shows inferior complexity or some hidden agenda or trying to pump prides of some groups closer to West. With such biased approaches, it is no civilization. If logic, here is logic (in my first post above) and more logical connection to natural event/verb than they do.

Lets not enter which civilizations are older and which are not. It is no hard to know written sources are biased according to powers of the world today, those permanent(!) UN members. You/scientists will say the old ancient history is unknown and you will say this civilization is older and that civilization is not. Absurd logic.

I am using the language that is still used today in my claim, I am not talking history. I gave a simple possible derivation of "dam" from a Turkic word/verb. Much more logical than written sources saying it is originally latin or greek or slav.

Ps: never forget that verbal history is older than written histories. after verbal history. After verbal unwritten history, artefact products such as weavings come before civilization/city histories. Check "catalhoyuk.com", 8000 years old, known oldest civilization/city in the world, it is 100 miles away from here. On its wall, there is a geometrical figure that copied a figure in weaving (fyi, geometrical weavings are related to Turkic culture.) Anyway, these are another story. Tell more about dam/dom.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #7
I gave a simple possible derivation of "dam" from a Turkic word/verb.

Possible but not probable. It comes from Proto-IndoEuropean, far older than the Turkic languagest. It may have passed into the Turkic family through transference from Anatolian, Tocharian Armenian or Indo-Iranian.
Des Essientes 7 | 1,291
16 Mar 2011  #8
Latin, Greek, and Polish are all Indo-European languages and as such they all have a common origin which is known as Proto-Indo-European. Linguists and philologists have been working on the reconstruction of PIE since the late 18th century when an Englishman, nicknamed "Oriental" Jones, working for the East India country got a Brahmin to teach him Sanskrit and Jones, knowing classical Latin and classical Greek already, realized that Sanskrit's similarities to these ancient European languages were too numerous to be mere coincidence. Now when linguists reconstruct words from PIE they put an asterisk before them. Where the Proto-Indo-Europeans lived is a matter of much contention with the two leading candidates being the Pontic Steppe and Anatolia. Turks live in Anatolia now but they came there from the East and Turkish is from a language family that originated further East than PIE making the chances of "Dom" having a Turkic origin extremely slim.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #9
Possible but not probable. It comes from Proto-IndoEuropean, far older than the Turkic languagest. It may have passed into the Turkic family through transference from Anatolian, Tocharian Armenian or Indo-Iranian.

Again. Saying it it comes from Proto IndoEuropean is not enough. Try to prove it (like I did in my first post.)

Turks live in Anatolia now but they came there from the East and Turkish is from a language family that originated further East than PIE making the chances of "Dom" having a Turkic origin extremely slim.

Who says Turks came to Anatolia later? According to a theory that sounds very logical, Turks were in Anatolia even 7000 years ago. Some inscripted stones in Anatolia with estimated age of several tousands of years were found. They were written in Runic alphabet, similar to inscriptions in Sweden, Finland, etc. Fyi, Runic/Futhark alphabet are very similar to old Turkic alphabet Orhun alphabet. Western written sources are biased, maybe, due to Chinese written sources. Stop reading Chinese written sources. They won't write truth about Turkics and Japans as they had had long wars with them.

I can give further proofs about Dam being Turkic word. But, you all are saying it is IndoEuro. It does not matter, but, prove. using your daily speaking language.
Des Essientes 7 | 1,291
16 Mar 2011  #10
Who says Turks came to Anatolia later?

The historical record says it. The Turkic migrations into the area started in late Classical times.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #11
We are not at a school trying to get a good grade by repeating like parrots whats written in written history.

True, their last come to Anatolia happened in 10-11th century, but, it was army. Before that dates, there were nomadic Turkic tribes living in Anatolia which was under control of Byzantine at that time. According to new findings, Turkics might have controlled Anatolia several times in the history. Lets not forget that Anatolia has been a craddle of many different civilizations throughout the history.

Talking such history does not tell anything about the origin of word Dam.
I am using a simple daily life language to prove written sources biased as they are mentioning only Greek/Latin/Slav about the origin of Dom/Dam while it is more closely related to Turkic and there are more evidences about that.
isthatu2 4 | 2,708
16 Mar 2011  #12
You are a clever guy so explain why you are going up such a blind alley with this? You cant simply stop at a point in history you like and discount anything prior.....if you do,you turn into crow,ya know,doesnt get that the first humans did not spring from the soil of serbia like some ray harryhausen film....

2nd Dom is my little Boy Dom or Dom Dom (short for Dominik),Love them both,if that helps :-)

Probably not,but it was sweet to read mate :)

But is it? The need for ...................................................................... ..... Good luck with your quest though, perhaps someday you'll tell us what fascinated discoveries you have uncovered.

Wot e said ;)
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #13
You are a clever guy so explain why you are going up such a blind alley with this? You cant simply stop at a point in history you like and discount anything prior.....

I am not doing that, written sources already doing that, stopping at points in history they like and discount others. Again, like I said, there is more evidence about origin of word Dom/Dam to Turkic and no written sources have written anything about that. It shows that your written sources are blind. No, deaf.

If Nomada... continues this way

stones will be put in their places..
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #14
You are a clever guy so explain why you are going up such a blind alley with this?

All evidence points to the contrary.

Who says Turks came to Anatolia later? According to a theory that sounds very logical, Turks were in Anatolia even 7000 years ago.

Less than relevant. The extinct Anatolian language was part of the IndoEuropean family, as was Tocharian, and given the nomadic proclivities of the Turks it would surprise nobody if their word for 'house' was a loanword from other languages.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #15
It seems that you insist on talking history, rather than simply giving proof evidences about daily life languages spoken even today. Okayy..

Before humans were settled, humans were nomadic. This is not my claim only, but also written sources say so. Ok, we agree in this? Ok. Before humans settled, they were not speaking any word? Of course, they were doing. Before any civilization/city/settlement happened, nomads (whether they were Turkic or Europeans, doesnt matter) were already using some technical things such as cutting sheep hairs and flatweaving them to make clothes or tents.

In Turkic, there is a word for house, in the sense we understand. It too is an old word, "ev", but, it is more about certain type of house like in settled places. The word Dam in Turkic is more than that. Dam is a very broad/generic/old name, it can be anything, it can be a house, it can be a prison, it can be a cave, it can be even a tree, etc, anything that you can be under while it is raining, etc. When humans are settled, they kept calling still nomadic people as uncivilized people, but, they were still using some old spoken words and Dam/Dom can be such a word.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #16
Dam/Dom can be such a word.

Except that you haven't provided one shred of proof that it is anything other than IndoEuropean. 'Can' is not enough. 'Is' is important.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #17
In my first post, already did that. Connected the word Dom/Dam to a natural event, "damla" (rain droplet) and "damlamak" (to drip) as a nomad travelling in the nature can do. This is stronger evidence than any claim's given in written sources. Ps: I used "can", to allow you space to bring your "can", your possible evidence about the root of Dom given in written sources which say not much other than saying "it is Latin/Greek/Slav origin." So, written sources have weaker evidence than mine, but, they do not mention Turkic. It is not problem, but, it shows your written history sources were probably written by scholars like Crow.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #18
"damla" (rain droplet) and "damlamak" (to drip)

Doesn't relate to a home.

So, written sources have weaker evidence than mine

You have no evidence at all.

probably written by scholars like Crow.

You are two of a kind.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #19
Doesn't relate to a home.

It is related. Home/House is Ev. As I said before, in Turkic, Dam is any kind of cover above your head, can be a cave, be a roof, can be a ceiling, be a tent, be a tree, be a house, etc. Dam is such a broad meaning word. Why do you need to be under such things in a nomadic life as humans were when they were not settled yet? It is due to natural events and raining is one of them.

Ps: Written sources do not write history/lifes of nomads. Nomads were considered as uncivilized by settled people who started to write things, but, biased writings as they didn't like to write anything about nomads, not to give these primitives any credit.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #20
As I said before

Incorrectly. The word has an ProtoIndoEuropean root. If it occurs in any Turkic language, that is where they borrowed it from.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #21
The word has an ProtoIndoEuropean root.

Prove it. (even if it is so, it is a nomadic word. Turkic nomads have kept the original word, Dam, and we still use it everywhere. It being not mentioned in written sources of West show a simple thing, inferior complexity. Come on, it is just a word. Damn.)
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #22
Prove it.

With pleasure. It is from the ProtoIndoEuropean root word -dem, meaning to build.

harvard.academia.edu/AlexanderNikolaev/Papers/303176/Indo-European_root_dem_h2_-_to_build_and_its_derivatives
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #23
I didn't even need to read that scholar document, so called scientific document, as soon as I read "to build."

"To build" is a newer term than "dam/dom/dem" as "to build" is more about settled life culture. They gave a meaning "to build" to "dam/dom/dem" which already existed even before humans were settled. (read my post above again, about what "dam/dom" can be, anything with any cover on your head whether it is built or not. So, dam/dom/dem is older word than built related.)

Here is another used term in Turkic. "Gok Dam" which means Sky.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #24
I didn't even need to read that scholar document, so called scientific document,

Perhaps you should, instead of spouting rubbish.
Sasha 2 | 1,083
16 Mar 2011  #25
Ancient Greek domos, Latin domus, Ancient Indian domas. ----> Slavic "dom".
The word "dym"-smoke also have Indian origin.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #26
Perhaps you should, instead of spouting rubbish.

Quickly read (as a former scientist, I can read an article very quickly.)
Searched the article for keywords, "turk" and "nomad."
It writes about every possibility from Greek to Slav to Hittite, etc, but, no, no any mention about to turk nor to nomad. So, you can throw this research document into garbage, it is a politically biased article. Chinese and Arabic written sources have done such things too a lot in history, they did everythings not to mention about the nomads. I see the same thing here in this article too, even in 21th century.

Been in physical science (math and phys), I know biased, political, so-called scientific articles even in technical sciences everywhere. So, it is no surprise to see another biased article in history/linguist article.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #27
no any mention about to turk nor to nomad. So, you can throw this research document into garbage, it is a politically biased article

Probably because it is irrelevant. Serbia too.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #28
you are off-topic.

anyway. my evidences, relating dom/dam to a nomadic culture/language is stronger than the research article there.

I will give another word, derived indirectly, relevant, "adam/odam" which means "man."

What about Yiddish? I read somewhere "ra dom" means "bad blood" which didn't make sense. Maybe, ra = sun god in an ancient egypt religion and "dam" is house. We know Abraham lived in Egypt before he moved to Israel. Beside, sky god, moon god, earth god, sun god too existed in tengri/shamanism/paganism, old religions of nomads.
JonnyM 11 | 2,621
16 Mar 2011  #29
Abraham didn't speak an IndoEuropean language, and Yiddish is a European language of the Germanic family which originated over two thousand years after Abraham died. You really are talking out of your arsehole.
OP NomadatNet 1 | 457
16 Mar 2011  #30
Yiddish is a mixed language mainly Ashkenazi (Altaic lang) with words from German and Hebrew. "Ra" has Hebrew root, transferred from old Egypty times, and Dom has Altaic root. Radom is Yiddish word with no Germanic word inclusion. But, if Poles want to translate "Radom" as "bad blood", it is upto them.


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