Szalawa 2 | 239 12 Mar 2016 / #2Paloma appears to be from Brazil, what have you got against Brazilians? If that question is directed towards the Polish.... Molon Labe
kpc21 1 | 746 12 Mar 2016 / #3Yes and no. It's impossible to answer to this question in a simple way.See that poverty is also in the countries which have never been communistic. I don't know how much truth is that, but according to my grandfather, there was much more poverty in Poland before the WW2 than in the communist times. This might be, however, an effect of PRL propaganda. Like some people think now that there is much more crime now than in PRL times, which is not truth. The difference is that after the fall of communism independent media have appeared, and media like to publish sensational news (to which the news about crime also belong), as they bring more money.One of the main ideas of communism was to make all the people equal. Of course, it's in fact impossible, it's always so that there are the equal and "the more equal". There was no official unemployment, everyone was legally obliged to have a job, so everyone had to earn some money (which was detrimental for the economy since you couldn't fire an employee who doesn't want to work). This is, at least, the theory and the propaganda version, but it must be at least partially true. How it was in reality, noone can say, I am afraid. Maybe analyzing some statistical data could help, but I don't think the statistical data from the communist times are reliable. Asking people that have lived in these times will not help since it will tell the truth only about the environment the specific person lived in and not about the country as a whole.And after the fall of the comunism many people fell into poverty because of losing their jobs in the bankrupting enterprises.On the other hand, "equalizing" everyone meant also making those who were rich much poorer (for example, a lot of possession has been confiscated by the government after the WW2, just in order to get rid of the rich people), which leads to making the country as a whole poorer than before.But in the communist times, the economy of Poland was basically weak - due to the forced cooperation and "bortherhood" with the Soviet Union and bans on cooperation with the western Europe. Not only because of the Soviet Union, but also because of the western countries, which didn't want us to have access to their technology (COCOM). So if Poland wasn't communistic for such a long time (although not just the communism seems to be a problem here, but rather the dependence on the Soviet Union and treating us as an enemy by the West), it could probably be much richer now.
gregy741 5 | 1226 12 Mar 2016 / #4Poverty in Poland, is a " legacy " of communism?yup,and former commies from PO circles disguised as "liberals"and their widespread thievery..but we are dealing with them pigs as we speak.lots of squealing,but we will manage