Polish word "Dom" and its similarities in different languages

No it isn't - it is a Germanic language. But provide a link to a source anyway.


No it doesn't. It has a pre-Khemetic root. But provide a link to a source anyway.


No it doesn't. It is from ProtoIndoEuropean. So let's have another link to a source.


No it isn't. But just for fun, provide a link to a source.

Four untrue and ridiculous statements. So let's see you back them up with anything other than the unbalanced chemicals swirling round in that shrivelled gland you call a brain.

Don't you get? Nomads have no written sources. They don't write what nomads have said. (Seriously, I told what the root of Dom/Dam is. again again. if you read posts again, you will see.)

Ps: My posts have not been off-topic, so, don't deserve to be in the bin. However, it is mod work.

Well ... I have heard some scientists found out that people in the Stone Age knew that Ataturk would be a very influencial figure in Turkish politics. Unfortunately there are no sources, cause they didn't write anything down back then ... :-S.

But it is true, you know ... .

Give me a break.

Silly old bat.

Derivation of words from Dom (in Polish.)

Ok, I found before

Domagac (to demand - root "dem" in English too probably has connection to dom/dam.)

Domagal (demanded - past tense really - or, it also sounds imperative?)

Domagala (should demand - also means "wish (she/he) demands"?)

'Domagać' has no connection with 'dom'. It's a prefixed word: do-magać. The '-magać' part comes from 'móc' which means 'might'.
(like: zmagać, wymagać, pomagać etc.)

Cinek

hmm.. thanks.
Just checked google translation.
do -> to
do magac -> a-quire, to the quire (must be "inquire" then when combined, so, "demand" is correct translation then or inquire.)

magac - might? "might" must be same as "can" as it shows ability/capability in one of translations in google. by the way, it is strange or not that it is closer to "magia"/magic. anyway, this is not important.

ok, domagac = (to) inquire, (to) demand.
dogamal is past tense?, derived from it by changing c to l? means inquired/demanded? (seperate translation of do + magal didn't give any result.)

'-magać' is not a real (i.e. seperate word) in Polish- it only appears in verbs with prefixes - it is a regular developement of the verb 'móc' - to be able to (or to be allowed to) which comes from the Indoeuropean root 'mag' which probably meant power

o -> a alteration in Polish verbs happens in the creation of so called frequentative forms (examples: przemóc (to overcome) -> przemagać (to overcome repeatedly or continously)); pomóc (to help (once = one time action) - pomagać (to help repeatedly or continously)

now back to the 'dom' origin - I don't know if it is possible that this Indoeuropean root comes from some Turkic dialect - such thing would require territorial contact backing to some 3000 or 4000 thousands B.C. - to my (superficial) knowlegde there was no such territorial contact between the two languages at these times - it is however possible that this root word both in Indoeuropean and Turkic come from a common ancestor meaning both Turkic and Indoeuropean come from a common ancestor language that developed differently into many branches including Turkic and Indoeuropean

still there is a some serious possibility that the situation is actually an opposite one - that the word 'dam' as a root in Turkic comes from a certain Indoeuropean speech - it is proven archeologically (and also linguistically) that Indoeuropean pastoral tribes once roamed all of the steppes of Central Asia at least as far east as Altai (Minusinsk depression), Takla-Makan desert (Takla-Makan or Tarim mummies, Tocharian inscriptions) in present day western China and even as far as eastern stretches of the Chinese Gansu province) - it is also disputed that Tocharians (or Proto-Tocharians) left a mark on the Chinese language so it won't be surprising to me if the proto-Turkic languages also were influenced by some Indoeuropean languages (Tocharian or later 'Iranian')

Do you realize your bias-ing here above? You start with "you don't know" and then you say as if you are sure you say "this Indoeuropean root" and then, you question possibility of its coming from Turkic. But, you already put the root, to IndoEuro domain. So, the rest of your words will be on that biased root. Then, you say your knowledge is "superficial". Don't mind, researchers are not different, they do researches with same mentality, biased minds, hence, their knowledge too is superficial. (btw, we translate superficial to "yuzeysel" means somethings like surface-al. Researchers are like fishes in deep sea. They don't think there is a ground at the bottom of sea as they fear to dive till the ground under the sea.)

I will give another example before returning to talk about Dom/Dam.
Am... This is p*ssy in Turkic. I quickly checked what research documents say about it. According to research literatures (mostly western/greek, chinese and arabic written literatures), they say origin of "Am" is "Amon", an old Egypt god/goddess/whatever. Everybody can now understand where Amin/Amen word comes from, Arabic/Semitic.. But... wait.. It does have no meaning in Arabic/Semitic or in any other language. It is just a name of an old Egyptian king/queen, called god/goddess. So, it is not that "Am" comes from "Amon", but, "Amon" comes from "Am", that's Turkic word for p*ssy. It is not surprise to derive many words in Turkic as it is agglutinative language, especially if it is such a basic word like sexual organ, that its root can be older than many tousands of years. Here are examples: Dam (we discussing this here), Damla (droplet, rain droplet), Odam/Adam (Man), etc etc.

Of course, it is possible Turkics and IndoEuropeans too might have same ancestors in the past. Religions and Darwinism don't differ about that, we didn't come from plural, but, from singular according to both of them. One says Eva (rib of Adam) and Adam and the other says Amip/Ameba/Amoeba/whatever.

Yeah, show them that they are stupid and reveal the real truth...
Man, what you did was just taking a random (and unfortunate) Polish word because it happened to be similar to a Turkich word, then blamed all around that they dont see your point. Is this what you mean by "diving to the ground"?

Cinek

Wow the "Sun Language Theory" sure is some wacky version of science. I did not know that the Sumerians were Turks. It all makes sense now. They did the whole sedentary urban lifestyle first before everyone else and then they decided to move back to the steppes for a few thousand years nomadic vacation from the "rat-race" of city life.

Yup. Even Niagara Falls comes from Turkish - Ne yaygara! - What tumult! :)
Turks also exported some notable birds to North America and thus they are the true authors of the Thanksgiving Day.


Yes, they were first settlers and they they took to nomadic lifestyle. Partly boredom, partly for lulz.

Recent article from "The Economist"
Quentin Atkinson, of the University of Auckland, in New Zealand, has been looking at the evolutionary issue, trying to locate the birthplace of the first language. Michael Dunn, of the Max Planck Institute for Psycholinguistics in the Netherlands, has been examining ontology. Fittingly, they have published their results in the two greatest rivals of scientific journalism. Dr Atkinson's paper appears in Science, Dr Dunn's in Nature.

economist/node/18557572

I followed some links. Apparently, not everyone is happy with the methods used and the findings. See for example this:

newscientist.com/article/dn20384-evolutionary-babel-was-in-southern-africa.html

Those phonemes again! Atkinson talks of Africa as a mother of all tongues, but Turkey is close enough.

Originally, it was a theory by a French scientist. Later, it was reconsidered by Ataturk when there was nationalist movements in Europe and in Ottoman lands.

Such ultimate theories can not be proved wrong or false. Science today (even physical sciences are biased, so, science history too is biased. When (if) we see China as superpower in next decade, whole world will learn everythings were invented by Chinese in the past. We have seen this since last century in the West. But, West deny, for example, they don't mention Albert Einstein was an Ashkenazi, at least, they try to hide such facts.

So, the theory that says Turks moved to Anatolia first time in 1000s is belong to the West. If Bush says twin-towers were attacked by El-Kaide, it will be written in written history and will stay so as long as USA or Bush-like people in USA stay as power and all other stories will remain as bla bla or conspiracies. Things about the history too are like that.

I will give another example that may show Turks living in Anatolia long time ago, even 7000-8000 years ago, neolithic age. Years ago, I had a hobby, collection in weavings, hand made carpets (knotted weavings) and kilims (flatwavings.) All collectors including experts whose professions were professors, etc etc too were agreeing that there are two kinds of motifs in weavings; geometric and floral. Geometric motifs were attributed to Turkics while florals were attributed to Persians. About two decades ago, a British archeolog found wall paintings in Catalhoyuk, a 8000 years old city (known oldest settled civilization place) in central Turkey. Those motifs were very similar to old Turkic kilim weavings. So, how come it was possible? Weavings, especially kilim weaving (flatwoven items) with geometrical motifs were almost always seen in Turkic cultures. This has been debated much among collectors, etc for 20 years. Here is one of them against this theory: marlamallett.com/chupdate.htm

So, with this and also with some other theories like Runic alphabet's similarity (found in Anatolia too) to Turkic Orhun alphabet divided classical Western teaching, so, world schoolars too.

While written sources aren't telling any true (logical) story about twin-towers, how can you say Turks were not there in Anatolia before 1000? Maybe, they came to Anatolia several times tousands of years ago too. Btw, even Italians accept they have a close relativeness with Turks. Late findings say Irish people were farmers in Anatolia before.

I didn't use any written source much or didn't take any written source as reference when I mentioned about the dom/dam. There are some words I know (I grew in rural life here) that even Turkish written sources don't know and Turks here don't know. I heard them from very old people years ago. Spoken language may be telling some more truths as written sources are usually political sources changing depending to the power of the day.

My research has revealed that Hebrew is the oldest if not one of the oldest languages in the world. Some say Aramaic came first, then Hebrew, others say the oppostite. there is disagreement on this subject by experts in the field but anyway, both languages are similar. Aramaic originating in north western Mesopotamia where Abrahams family lived and where he stopped for a while with his father Terah on his way to Palestine (then Caanan) from the city of ‘Ur’ in Chaldea, southern Mesopotamia. (It's interesting that Turkey has ‘UR’ in the middle of it too. probably doesn’t mean much but interesting since Turkey is the next door country to Iraq as it is today.

From what i can see, the words 'dom' and 'don' are from the same origins, and that is the Hebrew word for 'Lord' which is 'Adoney' or 'adonai'. Adonai is the plural of Adon. The word has survived down through the centuries and is still in our current English dictionary in the forms of domicile, domestic, Mafia Dons or Lords, Kings dom or Kingdom, dominate, etc. It has become related to the word 'house' through Latin history and hence, domestic, dominate (to Lord over) which just means that a house is your castle or realm or lordship, or minni Kingdom. If this is true, Walt Disney didnt realize that the name he gave to that Duck was 'Lord' How's that" 'Lord Duck' haa.. no maybe I'm wrong because i cant find this specific definition anywhere on the net but this is what my research indicates and i would be delighted to be corrected if this is possible.

To this theory of yours, elites invent words and then spreads to ordinary folks.. I say this cause Lord is a kind of elite word.. If don/dom has this background which goes to elite, has single uses, to me, it doesn't make sense that dom originates from Hebrew.. Latin has dom a broader use, a broader sense as it means house in Latin language. But, Latin is relatively new language.. In Turkic, the word "dam" has very broad sense as it means "any kind of house, even tent - with a ceiling" and it has a very wide use among ordinary folks from turkey to other turkic countries. So, I claim word dom/dam originated from Turkic due its very widely use by ordinary people.. There are even verb root related to dam.. Dam word in Turkic is something like a root of tree.. many words are related to dam.. For ex, adam = man, dam+la= drop, etc etc.. Anyway, if Turks imported dam word from this region/middle east/europe, then, Turks once were in this region some tousands of years ago too, during neolitic age too. Anyway, during this age, all folks of the world were kind of nomads. Dam/dom word must be so old that it is used very widely from west to east..

When you visit GhanaDom.com, you will notice that Verbal or Oral communication history is older than written histories.
Abusua yɛ dom, Dom means collection of persons or crowd of people in Ghana Akan Twi, Crowd of people from Ghana is call Ghana Dom.