MediaWatch
6 Feb 2012
History / Would you classify the Poland's Communist years as a "Soviet occupation" ? [221]
So you do agree Poland was controlled by Moscow?
I already told you.
Most of Russia's Jews from 300 years ago were already either thrown out of Russia (2/3 of them) or they were put in obscure places of the vast USSR territory (other 1/3 of Jews) where Moscow felt they weren't a threat to heart of Russian culture near Moscow.
Also Poland did not throw out all of its Jews after 1945. On the contrary, they were still in Poland and even in the Polish government.
As per the Pale Settlement, Russia saw the Russia-Poland border area as a place to push Russia's Jews to also.
Also how do you know exactly what orders Moscow gave Poland about Jews?
Only if you're a Soviet propagandist like you do you view it as a "bold" statement. Everyone thought after WWII that there would be free democratic elections in Poland. But Moscow never allowed it.
Do you think Pope John Paul II thought Poland had free elections under Moscow rule?
Yes and its also possible that I'm Santa Claus.
The discussion is about occupation, not control.
So you do agree Poland was controlled by Moscow?
Although one does have to come back to the Jewish question: if Warsaw only did what Moscow told them to, how come Poland's Jews were thrown out while the USSR's Jews were forced to stay where they were?
I already told you.
Most of Russia's Jews from 300 years ago were already either thrown out of Russia (2/3 of them) or they were put in obscure places of the vast USSR territory (other 1/3 of Jews) where Moscow felt they weren't a threat to heart of Russian culture near Moscow.
Also Poland did not throw out all of its Jews after 1945. On the contrary, they were still in Poland and even in the Polish government.
As per the Pale Settlement, Russia saw the Russia-Poland border area as a place to push Russia's Jews to also.
Also how do you know exactly what orders Moscow gave Poland about Jews?
That's a bit of a bold statement, especially considering that the pre-war authorities had suppressed support for Communism through some highly dubious means, and that the whole idea did enjoy quite a bit of support in Europe.
Only if you're a Soviet propagandist like you do you view it as a "bold" statement. Everyone thought after WWII that there would be free democratic elections in Poland. But Moscow never allowed it.
Do you think Pope John Paul II thought Poland had free elections under Moscow rule?
It's quite possible that even without the USSR actually playing a role, Poland would have gone Communist after WW2.
Yes and its also possible that I'm Santa Claus.