Serfdom effectively ended in England in the 14th century when Feudalism faded. At that point, Poland and England were at about the same point; in both nations the service obligations of peasants had been converted to monetary payments and the number of 'free' peasants, i.e. those with the right to freedom of movement, increased dramatically. Then we diverged. England lost serfdom entirely, whilst in Poland things went backwards - until by the 18th century a Polish serf could be obliged to work 7 days a week for his lord, not allowed to move or to marry without the lord's permission, and could be raped or murdered at will by his master until the very end of the 18th century. The abolition of serfdom in Poland ran roughly parallel to the abolition of negro slavery in the West, from 1807 - 1861. This much I think all Poles know, but I repeat it for non-Poles on the forum.
The serfs were just the least free of a servile society in which no-one except the magnates were really free. A serf's failure to denounce another serf who milled their own corn, or ran away, or who infringed the lord's rights led to being held equally culpable, and their failure to join a successful manhunt for an escaped serf led to the rest having to make up the labour lost. So in practice serfs did denounce; they policed themselves. To a serf, any other serf except their immediate family (and maybe not even then) was a potential informer.
American blacks claim the legacy of slavery still shackles them from achieving their potential, but of course they are highly visible. Nothing today distinguishes a Pole whose great-great-grandfather was a serf from one descended from the szlachta. So the question is, does this negative legacy exist in Poland in any form? Or is it something confined solely to black americans?
The serfs were just the least free of a servile society in which no-one except the magnates were really free. A serf's failure to denounce another serf who milled their own corn, or ran away, or who infringed the lord's rights led to being held equally culpable, and their failure to join a successful manhunt for an escaped serf led to the rest having to make up the labour lost. So in practice serfs did denounce; they policed themselves. To a serf, any other serf except their immediate family (and maybe not even then) was a potential informer.
American blacks claim the legacy of slavery still shackles them from achieving their potential, but of course they are highly visible. Nothing today distinguishes a Pole whose great-great-grandfather was a serf from one descended from the szlachta. So the question is, does this negative legacy exist in Poland in any form? Or is it something confined solely to black americans?