Why would anyone in their right mind say "mam doła"?! Dół is masc. inanimate so nominative = accusative. Only an uneducated retard would say things like "Felek, daj młotka", and the "doła" business sounds about the same.
Besides isn't the expression "być w dołku" (to feel depressed) in the first place?
Besides isn't the expression "być w dołku" (to feel depressed) in the first place?