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Poland and France cultures are similar


rozumiemnic 8 | 3,854
24 Jul 2019 #91
Is Poland doing something to promote its popularity in France considering many Poles and their descendants helped form the modern French state?

well, apart from the ones that were deported to Auschwitz, that is.
That is what happened to many Polish and others who had moved to France, thinking it was a civilized place.
[url=en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vel%27_d%27Hiv_Roundup][/url]
Mind you i suppose it could have happened anywhere...
Crow 154 | 8,996
24 Jul 2019 #92
Poles often forget that most of Polish ethnic lands that aren`t included in today`s Poland aren`t on the east but on the west of Europe. And that is what we have in official recognized historical records, without going deeper in the past, in antiquity.

You forgot turkish sh**, which is the sh** that serbs ate during most of the time.

I won`t deny that. If it was on France and Britain my people would be still included in Turkish Empire and actually wouldn`t exist anymore. My people exist only because Poles and Russians wanted to help us and were capable to do so in critical historical moments.

When my people started its final liberation from Turks, asked France and Britain for support. You know what was answer? Their reply to the envoy of Serbian king was that are demand of my people `outrages` that we are `troubling` element if we insist to be fully independent from the Ottoman Empire.

France, my dear Poles, like most of western Europe, after all, lets face it, is exactly disgusting, malevolent and evil. Greed above any empathy. Absolutely different from deep and noble Slavic soul of Poland.
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
24 Jul 2019 #93
Were not the canals aka sewers of Paris not originally designed by a Polish engineer?
Yes, wincig, Chopin surely was a Pole in his indefatigable spirit. Why then is he known as
"dusza polskiego narodu" (the soul of the Polish nation - l'ane de la nation polonaise), and not
the soul of France?

I was merely pointing out his mixed parentage, that's all:-)
Dirk diggler 10 | 4,585
24 Jul 2019 #94
They WERE similar. Now France is merely another cucked country who's natives are on the chopping block.
Crow 154 | 8,996
24 Jul 2019 #95
France is land where Byalobog said `good night` and Czarnybog said `good morning`.
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
24 Jul 2019 #96
"Cucked"?? "Cuckold", perhaps, as in the concept of a kept man, gigolo, or an unfortunate relation who sponges off of their more financially successful family members? How does this description apply to France, Dirk?
mafketis 37 | 10,906
24 Jul 2019 #97
In his circles 'cucked' refers to people (or parties or governments) who care more about and prioritize the interests of non-citizens and/or migrants and/or non-assimilating immigrants than in the native born...

It's what Dickens(?) called 'telescopic philanthropy' especially common among progressives in the west at present...

en.metapedia.org/wiki/Telescopic_philanthropy
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
24 Jul 2019 #98
Thanks, maf!. Only glad he didn't mean an "f" instead of a "c".
lol
pawian 224 | 24,465
25 Jul 2019 #99
The cultures must be similar. Wasn`t it Poles from whom the French learnt how to use a fork during a meal?
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
25 Jul 2019 #100
Well, all I can say is I betcha most Parisians don't know that the iconically French "bistro" is actually of Russian origin:-)
pawian 224 | 24,465
25 Jul 2019 #101
Yes, when Russian cossacks dropped in Paris cafes for a shot, they shouted Bistro, bistro (quick) because thye had been banned to drink by the tsar.
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
25 Jul 2019 #102
Quite right.
Crow 154 | 8,996
26 Jul 2019 #103
Ancestors of today`s French were in past freakenized by Romans and stupinized by British, then later saved by Polish and Russian cultural influences. Finally, now, France is culturally enriched by Africans.
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
26 Jul 2019 #104
Altered at any rate.
Curious as to whether the introduction of such delectables in their own right, for example Morrocan couscous above all, has in fact "enriched" staple French cuisine, haute or pauvre:-)

Maybe so. Somewhat different than my saying that pasta were a "foreign" influence in France's time-honored cooking, since the latter shares ever so much with their neighbor to the south, that it's almost like saying New England vs. Southern in the US. The latter is nonetheless seen collectively as "American".

North Africa is a different element, both dietarily as well as culturally.

"Stupinized"??, "freakenized"??LOL Crow, what are you talking about?
Crow 154 | 8,996
27 Jul 2019 #105
What you don`t understand?

If not for the Romans today`s French would speak in some Polish dialect. Romans made that land non-Slavic (ie non-Sarmatian), weakened Slavic element in genocide and then added non-European settlers. Then came the Brits. If not for the Brits French won`t be that stupid. Ask Irish what they think of Brits.
Wincig 2 | 227
13 Aug 2019 #106
the soul of the Polish nation - l'ane de la nation polonaise

I suppose you mean l'âme de la nation polonaise rather than l'ane (the donkey) de la nation polonaise??

If not for the Romans today`s French would speak in some Polish dialect.

Nope. Remember that the vikings navigated the Seine from there raided France several times from the IXth century until they decided to settle around the river, hence the name Normandie (land of the men from the North). Then a century later after having settled and become de facto French (France has jus soli and not jus sanguinis), they raided England thanks to William the Conqueror. What can we infer from this:

1) Britain is in fact a French colony which turned sour :)
2) if not French, the French would be speaking a Danish or Swedish dialect. Proximity between Scandinavia and France is further confirmed by the fact that the current Royal family of Sweden is of French origin, the first of the dynasty having been Jean Baptiste Bernadotte, one of Napoleon's marshalls, who became King of Sweden in 1818.
Ziemowit 14 | 4,263
13 Aug 2019 #107
the vikings raided France several times from the IXth century until they decided to settle around the river, hence the name Normandie

That could be true of Normandie only. It would not have been feasible for the Normans to impose their language on the whole of France. What the Vikings were not able to do, the Romans did several centuries earlier by romanising the entire Galia.

Britain is in fact a French colony which turned sour :)

You ignore the fact that English has remained a Germanic language in its gramatical structure and its basic vocabulary has also remained Germanic.

Proximity between Scandinavia and France is further confirmed

There is no particular proximity between Scandinavia and France. The Vikings settled in many coastal areas of Europe and occasionally in its arrière-pays. In all those places they eventually became assimilated and subsequently lost their native language to the local one. The best example of that was the Kievian Ruthenia. No, the Vilings never imposed their language on any group and actually the reverse is true.
Miloslaw 19 | 4,981
13 Aug 2019 #108
You ignore the fact that English has remained a Germanic language in its gramatical structure and its basic vocabulary has also remained Germanic.

But hugely influenced by Latin,Old Norse,Norman French as well as Anglo Saxon.
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
13 Aug 2019 #109
I always remind my students that, had 1066 AD not occurred, we Anglophones would be speaking a language far closer to both present-day Dutch, with practically no silent letters and a word stock composed of essentially Germanic roots, cf. "possible" vs. "mayley", "pedestrians" vs. "footgoers" etc...

:-)
Wincig 2 | 227
13 Aug 2019 #110
That could be true of Normandie only. It would not have been feasible for the Normans to impose their language on the whole of France.

Who knows? You have the remember that the Plantagenets who gave England several kings were in fact of Norman origin (in fact not exactly from Le Mans but the city was in Normandy at the time); that Henri II spent most of his time in what is today France rather than in England and that he married Aliénor d'Aquitaine who became queen of England after having been queen of France; together they produced two subsequent kings of England

You ignore the fact that English has remained a Germanic language in its gramatical structure and its basic vocabulary has also remained Germanic

A colony can keep its own language. Examples abound

There is no particular proximity between Scandinavia and France.

All the above has to be taken with a pinch of salt!
Miloslaw 19 | 4,981
13 Aug 2019 #111
I always remind my students that, had 1066 AD not occurred

This is true.
When I was first presented Chaucer's "Cantebury Tales", I thought WTF is this!
It was Middle English of course and after some hard work and perseverance, I understood it and loved it!
So detailed and graphic that you feel you are sensing,feeling and even smelling The Middle Ages....
And I could always feel that Norman French in his writing.
Wind back to Old English though.... like a foreign language...... Dutch,Danish,Germanic and even Celtic sounding.....
Lyzko 45 | 9,438
13 Aug 2019 #112
I telle we tellen
thou tellest ye telleth

Oh, sure! Conjugational inflections of this sort in fact existed up through early Elizabethan writing, e.g. Shakespeare, albeit the final "e" was not pronounced:-)

Never fail in the delight of recounting what a former English professor of mine in grad school told our class, that Sir Edmund Spencer was apparently chided by critics for his "self-conscious Chaucerisms" in The Faerie Queene, naturally appearing several centuries after The Canterbury TalesLOL

You can't make this stuff up!


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