I don't think anyone would be interested.
In the expression "w Polsce", it is not celownik which is being used, it is the case called miejscownik (locative).
Of course, but that's not what the argument was about. Plk said that "Polsce" HAS TO
be preceded by something (like "w", for example) when clearly it doesn't have to be preceded
by anything, if it is used in celownik (komu? czemu?), as in example sentences that I provided.
The original question was...
When do you use Polska and when do you use Polsce ?
...and "Polsce" is a correct form for both: celownik and miejscownik, so doesn't necessarily
have to be preceded by anything.