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1772 – Russia, Prussia and Habsburg Austria began the First Partition of Poland


ConstantineK 26 | 1,284
5 Aug 2011 #1
My dear friends,

Today I opened Wikipedia and saw the following: 1772 – Russia, Prussia and Habsburg Austria began the First Partition of Poland to help restore the regional balance of power in Eastern Europe among those three countries.

I decided that this day should not be overlooked by my polish fellows...))
Ziemowit 14 | 4,278
5 Aug 2011 #2
It would be very interesting to read your opinion on the question in what way that regional balance of power among those three partitioning powers that Wikipedia mentions had been distorted before 1772?
hague1cmaeron 14 | 1,368
5 Aug 2011 #3
in what way that regional balance of power among those three partitioning powers that Wikipedia mentions had been distorted before 1772?

A very interesting question. Let me try interpret this distortion. An eastern barbarous nation hungry for the fruits of civilization, and thus in accordance with its desires wanting to move as far west as possible. A western upstart whose only raison d'etre is opportunism, and fear of a possible revival of its western neighbor. And finally a southern nation whose desire for expansion is based on its loss of land to the western nation just mentioned.
OP ConstantineK 26 | 1,284
5 Aug 2011 #4
For pity's sake guys, you should know that it is hardly Russia has to be blamed for.... This idea came first from Parisian cabinets and was intended to avert more serious disaster as war between Russia and Austria might be. There was no any sense for Russia to divide Polanf, for it was Russian protectorate state without any forced actions. However, Russia was forcibly faced with the fact of partition by Prussia and especially Austria who feared Russian successes in war with Ottoman Empire.
Palivec - | 379
5 Aug 2011 #5
It would be very interesting to read your opinion on the question in what way that regional balance of power among those three partitioning powers that Wikipedia mentions had been distorted before 1772?

The personal union of Saxony and Poland weakened Prussias position in the region, which also competed with Austria for the hegemony in Germany. Prussia feared that Saxony would unite both Saxony and Poland with a takeover of Silesia. Prussia invaded Silesia and in several wars became the fifth great European power (England, France, Austria and Russia were the others). With the rise of Prussia a new reconciliation of interests with the former enemies Austria and Russia was needed, since these great powers had overlapping interests.
Ziemowit 14 | 4,278
5 Aug 2011 #6
This idea came first from Parisian cabinets and was intended to avert more serious disaster as war between Russia and Austria might be.

Why a war between Austria and Russia at that time should have been a more serious disaster for Europe than the partitions of Poland? The disappearance of Poland from the map of Europe resulted in the apperance of a common frontier between Russia and Germany. A natural bufor zone between them vanished and as soon as the three partitioning "black eagles" had stopped being preocupied with the threat of the Polish state being restored, they gripped themselves by their throats. The First World War broke out as a result and the Great October Revolution which followed in Russia devastated the country. Then the Stalinist terror, a fruit of this revolution, brought enormous suffering to the nation and left the country depopulated as a result of sending milions to "goulags". As a result of another world war, Germany has been brought to the Oder-Neise line and lost Silesia - which she conquered on Austria in 1741 - to Poland. As a result of the fall of communism, the western border of the Russian Federation had to be pulled back to its former border line with Poland as it is these days between Russia and Belorus, and it had to be pulled back even much furher east these days between Russia and Ukraine than it was in 1772 between Russia and Poland.

So why do you call the first partition of Poland a less serious disaster for your country than Russia going to war with Austria before 1772? Certainly, in the light of later developments in Europe, the anniversary of this first partition of Poland should not be a great day to remember for Russia!
hague1cmaeron 14 | 1,368
5 Aug 2011 #7
as soon as the three partitioning "black eagles" had stopped being preocupied with the threat of the Polish state being restored, they gripped themselves by their throats.

Yes they did. However the more serious damage was sowed for the future, with the start of the I War, which was a disaster for all the partitioning powers, because by partitioning Poland, they extinguished the only force for liberal democracy in central and eastern Europe. With the extinction of Poland the absolutism of the partitioning powers continued to grow unabated until reaching its natural conclusion in 1914. If the 3 May Constitution would've been allowed to take root things could have been very different for all concerned.
OP ConstantineK 26 | 1,284
5 Aug 2011 #8
Why a war between Austria and Russia at that time should have been a more serious disaster for Europe than the partitions of Poland?

This war would be certain devastation for Poland in first turn, because it would carried on principally in Poland, for, as you rightly mentioned, it was buffer state. However, it is a question which state Poland would sided in this conflict. Partition in this situation was the lesser evil.

A natural bufor zone between them vanished and as soon as the three partitioning "black eagles" had stopped being preocupied with the threat of the Polish state being restored, they gripped themselves by their throats

The fact is that Poland always was buffer state against Russia. Simple fact that next conflict between Russia and Germany took place only more than one hundred years later, clearly indicates that all partitions and eventual dissolution had been right things to do.

Quite contrary, war of 1812 perfectly shows what independent and "buffer" Poland may be for Russia.
hague1cmaeron 14 | 1,368
5 Aug 2011 #9
Simple fact

Talking about simple facts, I think we can all conclude that if the Golden Horde maintained its suzerainty over the Russians, and if the Russians had continued whoring their women to the mongols as well as paying other tributes, Then Europe would have been better off as a result.


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