You're ignoring too much history. Look at this link and tell me which part isn't true:
I looked at the link. It starts out like this:
it cannot be forgotten that interwar Poland had a very sorry record in terms of its treatment of its own Jewish minority.
...and then it lists limitations placed on Jewish businesses, lawyers, doctors, all "proving " officially sanctioned anti-Semitism. It gives serious references so we are comforted that it isn't a piece of propaganda. It is, however. No reasons for any of these actions are given except for... you guessed it, anti-Semitism, or dislike or even hatred of Jews. I have not checked these facts but I have a suspission they are not exactly correct.
There were more Jews in Poland than in any other country in the world except in the U.S. This was the waiting hall as the Jews waited to go home. If we accept this as being true, then we must also accept that they did not feel the same attachment to this land as the Poles. They were not farmers so the belonging is even more understandable. Allow me to make some generalizations here, or at least the same level as the Jews so often make about Poland. It isn't meant to antagonize you or anybody else. Citizens or minorities who don't feel attachment to the country they live in don't make the best citizens. Full assimilation would have elevated any problems arrising but we understand that was impossible because our religions differ and you couldn't expect the Jews to become Christians and give up their beliefs. Not to say they were bad citizens, very productive in fact,but our cultures differed and the more influence they had on our culture, they were perceived as a threat to our culture and the nationalist and Christian character of Poland. One doesn't have to a Marxist to understand that economics influence culture. As certain professions and sectors of industry became unproportionally staffed with Jewish workers and owners, the government enacted protectionist measures. We do not call tarifs and import taxes racist so we also shouldn't call these measures anti-Semitic either. Tests in Polish are viewed as anti-Semitic, but a question should be asked why weren't they speaking Polish but only Yiddish. In today's Israel can I take a profession cerfication test in Arabic or Armenian?
Warsaw had a larger population of Jews than whole of England, and 32% of lawyers and 66% of doctors were Jewish(well respected, you can be sure of that). In other parts of Poland this was even more pronounced.
From your link:
In May 1937, the membership of the Polish Medical Association adopted a paragraph into their professional charter excluding Jews from the medical profession.
This appears to mean that Jews had to seize practicing medicine, but I find that hard to believe. When you read that, what is your interpretation?
So the problem with the article you referenced is not what says, but it fails to address to get a fuller picture.
After 1935, Polish antisemitic political parties put increasing pressure on the government to pass legislation that would place restrictions on the social mobility of Polish Jews. These parties had been inspired by the example that the Nazis set in Germany with the passage of the Nuremberg Race Laws.
There was one openly anti-Semitic party then and had very small membership and was in fact outlawed by the government.