I was wondering if you guys could provide an answer to the following question: suppose that I, a non-EU foreigner (south America) would marry a Polish woman and she'd give birth to our children. Is it possible for them (the children) to bear her surname instead of mine? I believe them having my surname would be detrimental to their integration into Polish society.
According to this page [1] before marriage a couple in Poland is expected to declare
1/ the surnames of husband and wife (customary wife takes the surname of the husband or takes a new 'joined' one, but as far as I understand this can apply to either husband or wife, also the couple may decide not to change anything),
2/ the surnames of the children which might come later - which is to be - a/ the same as parents' if the parents' surnames are identical or - b/ the surname of one of the parents if they are different or - c/ the combined surnames of both parents (no more than two parts, if you have more you get to choose)
If there had been no such declaration the child's surname is the combined surnames of the parents (same as 2b above).
From experience I can also say that sometimes people change/simplify surnames before getting married with foreigners (my friend dropped one of his two parts), so it is possible, too.
