The verb błogosławić may be encountered governing either the accusative or dative case. Is there some faint nuance of difference between the two or are these stylistic options?
błogosławię (co?) ten dom błogosławię (czemu?) temu domowi
This is a faint nuance. Your question is difficult actually. Both are correct however the second one is rarely used today and having its derivation in oldfashioned Polish language.