Fairness
8 Apr 2010
History / Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations? [750]
Firstly, this is not just a question about reparations for the Jewish victims. By far the majority of the dispossessed are not Jewish. In any case a differentiation should be made between the Jewish people and Israel. Failure to do this is the equivalent of blaming Polish Catholics for the actions of Pinochet's Argentina purely because they share a religion.
Secondly, international opinion is that there does need to be reparation as demonstrated by the conditions for Poland's accession to the EU and the stance of the ECHR on the topic. This is not to say that Poland is being picked on by the international community. All other EU countries that suffered a similarly turbulent history have been asked for and have give reparations consisting of a small proportion of the sums lost. This is not a question of avarice. This is a question of justice and an action demonstrating, not contrition, but recognition of the wrongs.
What do you all think should happen and why? The figs are not nearly as high as the initial comment on this stream. It is currently being mooted that 12% of the value of any claim will be a fair sum. There is also the question of proof of ownership. Documentation rarely survives due to the conflicts in this period, but there are other ways to prove previous ownership such as alternative documents to deeds and even, the memories of those still living in the locality.
Firstly, this is not just a question about reparations for the Jewish victims. By far the majority of the dispossessed are not Jewish. In any case a differentiation should be made between the Jewish people and Israel. Failure to do this is the equivalent of blaming Polish Catholics for the actions of Pinochet's Argentina purely because they share a religion.
Secondly, international opinion is that there does need to be reparation as demonstrated by the conditions for Poland's accession to the EU and the stance of the ECHR on the topic. This is not to say that Poland is being picked on by the international community. All other EU countries that suffered a similarly turbulent history have been asked for and have give reparations consisting of a small proportion of the sums lost. This is not a question of avarice. This is a question of justice and an action demonstrating, not contrition, but recognition of the wrongs.
What do you all think should happen and why? The figs are not nearly as high as the initial comment on this stream. It is currently being mooted that 12% of the value of any claim will be a fair sum. There is also the question of proof of ownership. Documentation rarely survives due to the conflicts in this period, but there are other ways to prove previous ownership such as alternative documents to deeds and even, the memories of those still living in the locality.