History / Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations? [750]

The first thing about this issue is that Poland is the only EU country to offer no reparation for the losses of both Jewish and non Jewish families during 1939-89. This was originally a condition of their accession to the EU, but was dropped just before they signed on the understanding that they would pass a motion through their own Parliament so that they were compliant with the European Convention of Human Rights. They have tried to do this 14 times and there are those of you that might think that this is rather half hearted.

The second thing is that it is not a question of full restitution for these Jewish and non Jewish people, but a gesture. At a time where there are ever fewer survivors there is a need for greater urgency simply in the name of human decency.

There are other complex factor involved, but I think that these are the main ones. The real problem is that there is a lack of will to do anything about this amongst the governments involved.

The only thing that might help is concerted international pressure to get this sorted out. As such, get the your polish friends to write to their MP to raise it as an issue and therefore fight to restore Poland’s international reputation. If it's not done now, it will stand forever in the history books. Justice delayed is Justice denied.

History / Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations? [750]

If only it was that simple. From what I understand those that have tried have been fobbed off. If you know of an organisation, charity, or indeed a person in the government that might be helpful please let me know as there are quite a few people that I know who would be interested in getting in touch with them.

History / Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations? [750]

Firstly, this is not just a question about reparations for the Jewish victims. By far the majority of the dispossessed are not Jewish. In any case a differentiation should be made between the Jewish people and Israel. Failure to do this is the equivalent of blaming Polish Catholics for the actions of Pinochet's Argentina purely because they share a religion.

Secondly, international opinion is that there does need to be reparation as demonstrated by the conditions for Poland's accession to the EU and the stance of the ECHR on the topic. This is not to say that Poland is being picked on by the international community. All other EU countries that suffered a similarly turbulent history have been asked for and have give reparations consisting of a small proportion of the sums lost. This is not a question of avarice. This is a question of justice and an action demonstrating, not contrition, but recognition of the wrongs.

What do you all think should happen and why? The figs are not nearly as high as the initial comment on this stream. It is currently being mooted that 12% of the value of any claim will be a fair sum. There is also the question of proof of ownership. Documentation rarely survives due to the conflicts in this period, but there are other ways to prove previous ownership such as alternative documents to deeds and even, the memories of those still living in the locality.