History /
Why did communism in Poland fail? [180]
Is this a good question?
Seems like it was too good for you to get a decent respond.
Riches were those generated by tsardom, were people who were close to tsar, were royal families, as it always happen in monarchies, still so if you look at the House of Lords, 800 lords in today United Kingdom
Russia had not 800 such "lords" not even 800.000.
You see them elites today? I don't.
I thought we were talking about the past events that had their reflection in present. Russia isn't a monarchy nowadays it's therefore completely irrelevant to draw any parallel with the UK.
So, they are not elites.
They
were elites. There's no point whatsoever in talking about the gone people using present tense. :)
In 1917 revolution, these riches/lords of tsardom monarchy were arrested, killed, eliminated, etc. They too were Russians and they were nationalists who were also collobrating with the religious institutions, churchs. Design of revolution might be done by someones else, to win against the tsardom, but, appliers were poor workers anyway who were mostly Russians of whom there were many nationalists who were seeing Tsar and his lords were not enough nationalists..
Do you hear yourself? :)) it could be said that everyone is nationalistic but not enough and that's why they were exterminated by more nationalistic people. Great theory but stop wandering please and say something that's really worth discussion.
I.e. you might have named those who designed revolution that would have sorted everything out.
You shouldn't have skipped that indispensable moment.
were mostly folks from other nations such as Turkics
It's either lie or ignorance. I somehow think you tend to have them both. A quick look at any lists of those who were sentenced to death at Soviet era could explode that given that you're able to tell a Russian last name from Turkic one.
Let me stop with your drivel here...
