History /
Why did Hitler kill so many Jews in Poland? [261]
That wouldn't stand up in a court of law. Hitler was not insane in his early days in power, he knew what he was doing and it IS evil to plot genocide, whatever way you look at it. Law draws the dichotomy between 'in cold blood' and when riled. Hitler calculated his killings, they weren't on the spur of the moment. The Final Solution implies forethought and malice aforethought is basically the key component of murder (with mens rea). Murder is not evil??????
Coldly rational, please define that as you see it and please provide examples. Thanks!
Diminished responsibility came in the later years, Sok. His fellow officers spotted it, much in the same way as Tory Cabinet members spotted Thatcher being tipped over. Insanity is described in Scotland as 'the total alienation of reason'. In England by the McNaughton rules. Choose your standard and see if Hitler fit the bill. Diminished resposibility merely reduces the sentence but culpability is still there. He knew what he was doing!
I'm aware of the devious nature of Russian politicians though not to your level :) I have to qualify what I say. We need a counterbalance to American hegemony and he provides it, esp in concert with the Shanghai group. Generally, he's just a self-interested man!
Anyway, Hitler. He didn't like the business ethic of Jews. He felt that they were everywhere and had a hand in everything. I surmise that part of his behaviour was exactly because he didn't get his own way, being forced to sweep snow and, more infuriating for him, was rejected entry to art school. It's easy for us to say that he overreacted but he felt passionately about it.