hague1cmaeron 14 | 1366
5 Mar 2012 / #91
I know that Poland was in a very difficult stratetical situation at that time but so was Czechoslovakia, too.
You see its not quite as simple as that, since the territory that the Poles took from the Czechs at the time (Zaolzie), had a Polish majority population which wanted to be part of the Polish state, the Czechs formed a minority in that piece of land. You can read about the history of the place here:
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zaolzie
Furthermore the Czechs got this piece of land by very dubious means: " On 31 October 1918, at the dusk of World War I and the dissolution of Austria-Hungary, the majority of the area was taken over by local Polish authorities supported by armed forces.[18] The interim agreement of 2 November 1918 reflected the inability of the two national councils to come to final delimitation.[17] On 5 November 1918, the area was divided between Poland and Czechoslovakia by an interim agreement of two local self-government councils (Czech Zemský národní výbor pro Slezsko and Polish Rada Narodowa Księstwa Cieszyńskiego).[19] Before that, the majority of the area was taken over by Polish local authorities. In 1919 both councils were absorbed by the newly created and independent central governments in Prague and Warsaw. The former was not satisfied with this compromise and on 23 January 1919 invaded the area[20][21] while Poland was engaged in its war against the West Ukrainian National Republic."
And furthermore if the Poles left this bit of land with a Polish majority alone, then the Germans would have taken it anyway, and I am sure that the locals would have much preferred to be under Polish control.