Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations?

Thank you for that link. Please note that the topic of this thread is "Why are Jews pestering Poland for "proper" WW2 monetary restitution/reparations?" and thus posts regarding alleged actions with regard to Palestinians in Israel is off-topic and could be seen as an attempt to take the thread off-topic. Thank you.

Would you care to express any views about whether Poles, whether gentile or Jewish, should have their property returned to them? Perhaps you might care to venture an opinion about the failure of Poland to pass any property restitution laws?


I wonder if one might consider those losses to come under the description of WWII-related losses. If one subscribes to the view that WWII didn't end until 1989 (which is a not uncommon view in Poland), one would have to conclude that they do.

I was thinking precisely the same thing.

And in this case, there can be no doubt caused by missing heirs or lack of documentation. The people who moved into those properties at the communists' behest should think about packing up pretty soon.

Which would, of course, include the US government (although the man whose Warsaw property was stolen because the USA wanted it wasn't Jewish).

That whole same argument is going on about part of the Russian Embassy premises too - the bit at the back corner on the Gargarina side where the residence is.

But because it's diplomatic property they can't kick Russia out. This means the government has to compensate the heir: an elderly lady whose father owned it. No idea if she's Jewish or not.

With the US embassy, it seems that the US govt were aware that the status of the land was at the very best somewhat questionable: they had a clause inserted into the lease agreement for the land (100 years if memory serves me correctly) in which the Polish govt indemnifies them against any and all claims with regard to restitution. This might be due to them repeatedly trying to purchase the property from the rightful owner and being rebuffed.

The same situation applies to the Russian Residence. A can of worms if ever there was one. as far as I know, the lady would actually prefer her family home back - she's wealthy anyway and the house is of course prime real estate.

And not only those two: the same problem is with the Finnish, Serbian and Belgian embassies. Seems that Poland had a habit of selling what didn't actually belong to it.

As ?I said expectation of special treatment. never mind !

Not just in Poland - I'm a fan of the view that it didn't end until 1990 with the 2+4 Treaty.


Common usage among hard left-wingers who oppose Jews on ideological grounds, I think. I've heard the same nonsense from a couple of lunatic Anti-Nazi League supporters in the UK.

The European Left of the late 60's was definitely anti-Zionist and critical to be sure of Israel, but surely NOT anti-semitic! After all, Daniel Cohn-Bendit was a French-German Jew himself, don't let's forget either.

In Poland there was a joke doing the rounds during the anti-Jewish rallies and expulsions of 1968. A son returns home with a placard saying 'Zionists go home' and the father says "odd, in my day we used to spell it with a J".

Mel Gibson needs to pay restitution too, kosher-nostra is trying to shakedown Mel

jta.org/news/article/2012/01/30/3091415/synagogue-solicits-mel-gibson

He certainly should be prosecuted for some of the things he has said about that particular community. If he'd said that stuff about Poles there'd be a thread on here 50 pages long with people baying for his blood.

How do you know that joke was going around in 1968?

Also 1968 is when Moscow controlled Poland with an iron fist.

Most people I know a) are Polish, b) were alive then and c) make conversation. Not all of us on here are twenty-something non-Polish speaking basement-dwellers from half way across the world.


The anti-Jewish rallies were entirely home-grown.

If that is the case, it was only possible due to a few million Polish collaborators.

Can you explain why the USSR didn't throw its Jews out in 1968? If Poland was merely following instructions from Moscow, why didn't the USSR do the same as it had supposedly instructed Poland to do?

I'm sure that Kremlin love you !


nice dig at the men of" honour" Harry !


Why don't you ask them ?

So you're saying the Soviet authorities, who were ever so paranoid and sensitive about major political activities in their territories didn't know a thing about it?


Because Russia already did. Or at least threw out most Jews in prior years.

Why should Russia/USSR try to throw out Jews from Russia in 1968 when Russia already did a good job of throwing most Jews out of Russia during the Pale Settlement many years earlier?

What do you think the Russian leader Catharine the Great was doing to Jews way before 1968???

Duh!!

Really? So why were there still 2.15 million living there in 1970? Good to know that your ignorance extends to cover more than just Poland.

It would hardly arouse the interest of Moscow. Internal party matter, and it didn't affect the top men - what was to be so interested about?

expert eh? Care to prove it?

I didn't say all Jews were kicked out of Russia, but I doubt 2.15 million Jews were in Russia in 1970.

But even if that was true, over twice that amount of Jews were already kicked out of the heart of Russia in the Moscow area if not kicked out of Russia altogether. The Russians made sure that if they didn't kick out most of the Jews from Russia during the Pale Settlement, that the remaining Jews would be far away from the heart of Russia/Moscow region. Don't tell me a great historian like you didn't know that? LOL

As for Jews who were in Russia in 1970, many of them left after 1980.


LOL

Big political rallies in Russian controlled Poland didn't arouse interest in Moscow???? REALLY??

Nice one there, Jonny O:-)

Why would it be worth more than a mere raising of an eyebrow, given that far more serious things were going on in Czechoslovakia?

'Knowing a thing' about something isn't the same as orchestrating it. The 1968 Polish pogroms were home-made and part and parcel of issues that had been simmering for decades if not centuries.


In 1968 the Polish pogroms were the least of their worries.

Doubt all you want, you can't find a source which says otherwise.

And why were they still there? If the Polish 'anti-zionist' campaign of 1968 was carried out at the order of Moscow, why were the USSR's jews allowed to remain in the USSR?


Funny how there were still 1.45 million left in 1989.

"Netanyahu must stop misusing the Holocaust" or pay repration

haaretz.com/blogs/strenger-than-fiction/netanyahu-must-stop-misusing-the-holocaust-1.409191

You may be right. Considering Russia's historical treatment of Jews, why should any self respecting Russian care about anti-semitism in Russian controlled Poland? Especially a powerful Russian in Moscow? Afterall Poland historically was part of the Pale Settlement where Russia expelled most of its Jews to.

jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/History/pale.html
jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/judaica/ejud_0002_0015_0_15340.html


Yes and I'm sure the nation which controlled Poland at the time which used Poland as a "dumping place" for its Jews didn't have a single thing to do with it. LOL

You're right. Russia's historical anti-semitism had absolutely NO influence on Russian dominated Poland LOL!

jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/History/pale.html
jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/judaica/ejud_0002_0015_0_15340.html


Well considering Russia's historical attitude toward Jews, you maybe right. When there were tensions between Poles and Jews in Poland, what side do you think Russia was on? The Jews or the Poles? Or maybe Russia liked seeing both groups fight each other to take attention away from Russian anti-semitism?


Its also funny how that is only a small fraction of the amount of Jews that used to be in Russia before Russia forced them out into the Pale Settlment.

Wouldn't you agree?

Not a single thing.


Yeas I am right. Historical anti-semitism in Poland was the background to the 1968 Polish pogrom.


The holocaust and post-war emigration might have has just a little to do with that.


No. Put the tin-foil helmet back on.

Why do you keep banging on about Russia? In 1968 Russia did not exist as a country: it was part of the USSR.


The first census of the Soviet Union (1926) showed that there were 2.67 million Jews in the USSR. In 1959, despite the effects of the holocaust and WWII, there were 2.26 million, in 1970 2.15 million. If your claim is correct and Poland was only carrying out its 'anti-zionist' campaign on the orders of Moscow, why were so many Jews allowed to remain in the USSR?


It's not so much that, it's just his instinctive need to blame other people for Polish failures.