@Rich, your distinction is valid and I apologize for not being specific.
As far as Polish property appropriated by the Communists in Poland AFTER WWII, much of that "Polish" property was doubtless owned in part by Jewish families and so we're back to square one in terms of the entire question of reparations!
As far as Polish property appropriated by the Communists in Poland AFTER WWII, much of that "Polish" property was doubtless owned in part by Jewish families and so we're back to square one in terms of the entire question of reparations!