In reality you would have to ask Stalin what was the reason those lands went to Poland.
Simple, he wanted to keep Poland dependent on the SU, because Poland would need the SU to defend them against German attempts to revise the border.
That BS. Most of that industry if not destroyed during military oppression was either destroyed or stolen by the Soviets.
The areas especially in Silesia had still vastly more economic potential than the areas in the East. That the areas in now Western Poland were far more valuable both in terms of ressources and industrial capabilities (far from everything was destroyed) than those lost in the East is not up to any debate, it is a fact.
Warsaw wasn't destroyed completely due to a military operation not even due to the Warsaw uprising but due to the systematic destruction carried out by the Germans on Hitler's order.
All of that is covered in the existing treaties. There were in total 5 times when the issue of reparations was adressed for Poland: 1. Potsdam Agreement 2. The treaty with the GDR 3. Warsaw treaty 4. 4+2 treaty 1990 and 5. the border treaty with Germany in 1991.
The point is that Poland has time and time again refirmed its' position to not seek further reparations against Germany, and signed treaties confirming this. There is hardly any modern conflict in which the reparation issue has been dealt with as conclusively as between Poland and Germany.
Not if he is talking about private property that wasn't destroyed due to military operation but due to the actions of the occupied power.
It doesn't matter, those claims would still have to be made by the Polish state, who has signed off any claims for future reparations.