2nd, 3rd Conditionals in Polish

Hi, im living in Poland at the moment and trying to study the language, although ive got to say its kind of difficult, moreover the declenations (is this the right word?) of nouns.

Anyway my question concerns the aforementioned 2nd and 3rd conditionals...this pop up all the time in english but when trying to learn them i was being told different things by different people.

Okay take the 3rd cond.
if i had won the lottery i would have bought a new house
Gdybym wgra 2; na loteria (by 2;bym) kupi 2;bym (kupi 2:) nowy dom

if i won the lottery i would buy a new house
Gdybym wgrywa 2; (wgra 2;?) na loteria kupię /będę kupowa 2; / kupi 2;bym nowy dom

are any of these correct and if so which one!
I was told one thing and then another, and then finally that this doesnt exist in Poland,a dn that the are the same and that you can gather the info through context!

I am and english teacher here in Poladn and teaching the 4 conditionals is a nightmare...but then i was told they exist and a simple way for me to explain them would be to show their similarities in polish!

if it is a long explanation maybe you can email me

bennyr81@hotmail

wait! i didnt know that the l with a line through would come out as a 2 so 2= l'

I think it's more safe not to use Polish signs on the Internet (to avoid getting even stranger signs :).

Anyway, here are the correct sentences without the Polish signs (which is perfectly understandable for 99.99% of Polish people):

If I had won the lottery i would have bought a new house -
Gdybym byl wygral na loterii, kupilbym nowy dom. // it means you have not won the lottery but most likely you had a good chance in the past to win it. So it means you did played the lottery, but you were unsuccessful.

If i win the lottery i will buy a new house -
Gdy wygram na loterii, kupie nowy dom // it means you hope to win the lottery some day in the future and say what you're going to do as soon as you win. But it doesn't necessarily means you will ever play the lottery.

Hope it helps.

No. 'byl wygral' is disappearing from our language as a marker of the 3rd conditional and there can be no difference between the verb endings used in 2nd and 3rd cond. sentences (I am using the English terminology, because this lack of difference means that these conditionals do not exist as separate entities in Polish). I think that people will usually add a phrase that refers to past time to make sure they are referring to the past.

"Gdybym WTEDY wygral na loterii...."
or
"gdybym wygral na TAMTEJ loterii" ('that lottery')

However, I liked the use of 'bylbym" in the second part of the sentence


Sometimes it is used as a kind of incoplete conditional:
bylbym go zlapal (I would have caught him = I nearly caught him)

bylbym zadzwonil (I would have called = I was going to call you, but...)

In the second conditional only "kupilbym" can be used.

"kupie" is a straightforward future reference. It is used in 1st condtional sentences, where "gdyby" is not possible
"Jesli wygram na loterii, kupie nowy dom"

'bede kupowal' makes little sense to me in this context.

Now
"Gdybym wygral na loterii, kupie nowy dom" mixes the first and second conditionals, but doesn't sound appallingly ungrammatical to me. I wouldn't correct it as readily as "If I won... I will buy". But then I'm not a native speaker of English....

I think the last Guest is right. It's a complicated topic though...:)