Ozi Dan
25 Jul 2012
History / Did British public protest against the sell out of Poland to the Soviets? [286]
Indeed. I, in particular, call for a detailed synopsis of how HMG complied with Article 5 of the Treaty after the Teheran Conference. Given that Jon has so vociferously said that the Treaty has been fulfilled, we can only assume he has full knowledge of every time an obligation was triggered then complied with.
The thing that strikes me the most about this speech (and the almost mirror terms of Art 1) is that it is an open offer - he does not caveat the type or quality of support in any way. He does not say, for example, we will offer such support to the extent of dropping leaflets, or such support will not include any form of actual combat, and so on.
Now, if at the time of making this speech (or more relevantly, at the time of the Agreement being executed), Chamberlain was aware that the assistance was to be, relatively speaking, limited, then he misrepresented the situation to Poland. If he was unaware, then he was inept.
Given the relatively short space of time between the Agreement and hostilities commencing, why would HMG not have particularised the form of assistance to be given, because surely they would have known that "all support within their power" meant not much at all, and that the quoted terms would cause Poland to rely on something that simply wasn't going to happen. Again, if they knew, then it was a deception, and if they didn't, they were inept.
But, since you assert that Britain had met its obligations, please detail exactly what military aid the British Empire, with its air force and the largest navy in the world at the time, including 7 aircraft carriers, gave to Poland in September 1939. Give sources for your answers.
Indeed. I, in particular, call for a detailed synopsis of how HMG complied with Article 5 of the Treaty after the Teheran Conference. Given that Jon has so vociferously said that the Treaty has been fulfilled, we can only assume he has full knowledge of every time an obligation was triggered then complied with.
Considering that Chamberlain's speech pledging to defend Poland's independence was made over five months prior to Hitler's attack on Poland, please explain why Britain was unprepared to offer more assistance to Poland than what it did.
The thing that strikes me the most about this speech (and the almost mirror terms of Art 1) is that it is an open offer - he does not caveat the type or quality of support in any way. He does not say, for example, we will offer such support to the extent of dropping leaflets, or such support will not include any form of actual combat, and so on.
Now, if at the time of making this speech (or more relevantly, at the time of the Agreement being executed), Chamberlain was aware that the assistance was to be, relatively speaking, limited, then he misrepresented the situation to Poland. If he was unaware, then he was inept.
Given the relatively short space of time between the Agreement and hostilities commencing, why would HMG not have particularised the form of assistance to be given, because surely they would have known that "all support within their power" meant not much at all, and that the quoted terms would cause Poland to rely on something that simply wasn't going to happen. Again, if they knew, then it was a deception, and if they didn't, they were inept.