I wrote about historical facts because the overrepresentation of Jews in directorship of the MBP in 1944-1954 is a historical factThe point still is: many of these Jewish people were Polish. You differentiate between them, and my first question in this thread was "Why?" Back to square one?
To my mind the answer is this:
If it is a fact that there was an overrepresentation of Jewish Poles (Polish Jews, Poles of Jewish faith, Jewish people who lived in Poland or whatever) in the Polish Communist regime, then in asking the question of why Jewish Poles (Polish Jews, Poles of Jewish faith, Jewish people who lived in Poland or whatever) made up a disproportionate number, one must needs be differentiate for the purposes of the exercise.
Questioning "Why?" the differentiation is, with respect, as useless as, for example, asking a statistician conducting a survey on prison populations in the US why they differentiated between African American, Hispanic American, Asiatic American, Caucasian American etc people in custody in the USA when they are all Americans anyway.
Or, to use a more Australian example, questioning a Royal Commission into death in custody why they differentiated between indigenous Australians and non-indigenous when both subsets are in the end Australian.
I suppose one could use an even more relevant example to yourself and ask you why you differentiate between Germans displaced during and after WW2 and Poles displaced during and after WW2 when all these people are human and/or from Europe etc etc.
If you can answer that question in respect of yourself, then you may have answered the question you posed to Paulina, if indeed her motivation was the same as yours.
I see several answers open to you - purely academic reasons, an objective sense that there has been an injustice, or because you identify strongly with your German heritage and are aggrieved that Germans were displaced. If there's another answer then let me know.
So what do you do with those 3.5+ million Polish members of the communist party? Deny that they ever existed?
Do with them? In what regard exactly?
For the ones who freely, opportunistically and voluntarily signed up as Commies and took part in the subjugation, murder and control of their countrymen, I think we can all agree they are deserving of a special place in hell for their treachery. As to how many that is, no one really knows.
For the rest, what would you do to the father who was left no choice but to join the SB under threat of what would happen to his family if he didn't? What of the invalid AK veteran who had to become a card carrying member to survive? Or what of the Jewish Pole, once a lawyer in pre WW2 Warsaw, who was similarly forced into the role of Prosecutor because if he didn't he'd be shot in the back of the head?
Who really knows?
What I do know is that just before the Soviet takeover, say late 1944/early 1945, the number of Polish people (of whatever faith or race) who professed to being Communist could be counted in the hundreds, and that's probably being generous.
From 100's to 1,000,000's in the space of a few years suggest the Soviets and Polish Communists were selling something in their doctrine that really appealed to all those Poles who joined up after WW2 - as to what that something was, I don't know, but if you find it let me know and we'll start our own political party.