What you must understand is that there must be an actus reus, coupled with the mens rea to constitute genocide.
Why must I understand this in this scenario? Whose act and whose guilty mind? I'm no criminal law expert, but I wasn't aware that common law notions of guilt finding applied to what I thought were code law jurisdictions. How do these apply to a nation cf an individual? Do you mean Stalin per se? What about similar fact evidence?
Seriously, please read up on mass murder and refute the contention that Katyń was exactly that. See if you can come up with sth good.
I haven't said Katyn wasn't mass murder. What I said was that in my view it was the precursor to what was to come, regardless of class, had the Nazis and Soviets remained allies. I thought my proposition was fairly clear and I honestly can't explain it in any clearer terms.
Perhaps I will not use Biblical analogies because you are all 'above that'.
There's no need to profess indignation friend. If you can't understand what's being argued, then ask for clarification and we'd be more than happy to oblige.