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Poland peasant or noble tradition?


Switezianka - | 463  
7 Oct 2008 /  #31
Pasek, a representative of gentry, seemed to be driven by high culture needs.

Oh, yes, Pasek was a sophisticated intellectual. Anyway, great fun to read!
Matyjasz 2 | 1,544  
7 Oct 2008 /  #32
At long last, back to Poland. Wasn't communism supposed to level out all the people into those who are equal and those who are more equal than others?

Well yes. They definately did manage to eliminate the class system in Poland. The terms upper-class, middle-class and working-class are pretty much foreign to an average Kowalski. The aristocracy/ working-class division was replaced to some extenet by inteligentsia/ ploretaryat division, but that also did change and these days it's more about your income rather than education.
Siegfried 1 | 100  
8 Oct 2008 /  #33
I would like to notice one thing (about "peasant and noble"):

polish nobles were quite close to the peasants - in many cases the only difference was sabre.
and "szlachta" was massive - about 10% of citizens.
jonni 16 | 2,482  
9 Oct 2008 /  #34
"szlachta" was massive - about 10% of citizens.

Between 10 and 12% iat the end of the C18, when their status was abolished. Very difficult to call them nobility, since many were very poor and of basic habits. Gentlefolk is matbe a better translation but still not quite suitable.

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